Thank you, brother Zai. May Allah swt look with grace on your quest for understanding and help you find the knowledge you seek.

we have to remember that translation of the Quran is translation and all ways be translation…
we should be very carefull in coming to conclusions… woman in the Quran meas that there were issues between the husband and wife..and when then were resolved,,they are mention as wife!! Lokk it up all thru the Quran and you will understand..i am not a scholor but got this info from a great qualfied scholor!! A

All the prophets mentioned with their wive’s in the Quran without children ,,are mentioned as woman and when they had the child .they are mentioned as wife…even though they were husband and wife!

The language of the Quran is unique and distinctive ,not like english and Spanish…. we will never be able to completely understand the Quran thru a different language until we learn Arabic..

ALLAH knows best!

Sister,
I do not disagree with you Mariyah was not a slave, was emancipated and the Prophet (s)married her. Reread the last paragraph of my comment.

“Whatever that was permisable to our prophet (may peace and blessing be upon him) should not be seen wrong”

Absolutely right! But if Mariyah was not a slave, then the prophet DID NOT engage in this practice, right?

..and that’s where the questions come in. By what logical and Quranically consistent argument do some scholars allow this practice?

Asking these questions is ABSOLUTELY permissible in the deen. The Sahaba asked questions, and we Muslims ask questions to the scholars. You say “learn your deen”…exactly! That’s WHY I’m here. To learn the deen from scholars. I do not need Imam Suhaib to answer these questions…any qualified Imam will do!

Salaam, I personly think zai previous question doesn’t need to be answer by Imam, but rather zai himself should seek real knowkedge of the Deen. Whatever that was permisable to our prophet (may peace and blessing be upon him) should not be seen wrong, but we should learn our deen the right way. Allah (swt) made this permisable for him. Also once he receive she was no longer a slave but was emancipated and the prophet married her. We cant expect every question like this for the imam to respond to my advise learn your deen!

If I ever have a daughter InshaAllah, this is the rhetoric I would like to raise her with. These are the valuable, inspirational stories I hope for her to hold on to, as she experiences each phase of her life, InshaAllah.

May Allah (swt) bless these five remarkable women (peace be upon them all) and may He (swt) bless you and us all with their company in Jannah – Aameen!

JazakAllahuKhairan!

“Let me clarify what I meant to say. In general when we say “woman of Imran” it means his wife.. Otherwise more appropriate would be woman from (min) Imran, I think…”

Brother Ajaz,
This is not necessarily accurate. The Qur’an might say “woman of Imran” literally, but MEAN woman FROM Imran. This is perfectly acceptable usage in tribal cultures. I myself am from a tribal culture, Pashtun, and we use this denotation in Afghanistan saying “zan-e” or “Da _______ shedza” in Farsi or Pashto and it can refer to a tribal ancestor or the tribe itself, not a wife.

Kurd, Baluchi or Gulf Arab can also testify to this. It’s a common reference in tribal cultures where we tend to consider each other one large extended family who are all descended from a particular known ancestor, especially at the clan level.

From what I understand, this is how most mufasiroun have interpreted this verse. That Maryam is a sister of Haroun in that she is descended from his house.

Ask yourself brother…if she is the literal sister of Haroun and we know Haroun is the brother of Musa, why wouldn’t she just be called sister of Musa? Musa is more well known and of a higher maqam than his brother if that was the connection.

“Now if we take both places in the most plausibe meaninings like wife in this case and sister in other case .. the meanings go perfectly with ahadeeth so far. The only issue is it contradicts biblical history..
Where as if we go with the metaphoric meanings: we have to do that twice (which I suppose isn’t healthy logically) and we also contradict 2 ahadeeth in 3 books.
I suppose questioning biblical history!”

Brother, the question here is WHO Maryam is. Is Maryam the mother of Isa a DESCENDANT of Haroun & Musa or is she the LITERAL sister of Haroun and Musa, and her mother the LITERAL wife of Imran? Musa and Haroun were NOT Isa’s literal uncles ya baradar jaan. They are separated by a 1000+ years and even the Quran states so.

Further if you read the Quran itself it gives the story of Mary’s mother and how she wished for a boy, but Mary was born instead and given to Zakariyyah to be raised in the temple. It is clear she is not the sister of Moses and Haroun. Maryam the literal sister of Haroun and Musa is not even mentioned in the Qur’an to my knowledge. So the question of whether biblical history is accurate on this account is irrelevant…not only the bible but the Quran make clear these were two different people.

The hadith complicate matters though by suggesting a mix up of the two Maryams. The Quran alone does not do this, but if you add the hadith it seems like there IS a mix up of two totally different people from the bible. If you read the hadith ALONE or the Quran ALONE, there is no issue…but BOTH read together strengthen Jewish and Christian arguments that Muslims have mixed up two different Marys…

Either we admit the Hadith has an issue, or it leaves the Qur’an open to a very easy attack which would convince a LOT of people, including Muslims!

Let me clarify what I meant to say. In general when we say “woman of Imran” it means his wife.. Otherwise more appropriate would be woman from (min) Imran, I think…
Now if we take both places in the most plausibe meaninings like wife in this case and sister in other case .. the meanings go perfectly with ahadeeth so far. The only issue is it contradicts biblical history..
Where as if we go with the metaphoric meanings: we have to do that twice (which I suppose isn’t healthy logically) and we also contradict 2 ahadeeth in 3 books.
I suppose questioning biblical history!